"But when he who had set me apart before I was born,"

"But when he who had set me apart before I was born, and who called me by his grace," Galatians 1:15

Paul affirms the doctrine of predestination, not only in Galatians but, also all throughout the epistles. Grace is not something that God has on everyone, as Paul parallels here the setting apart with God's grace. It was by God's grace that He set Paul apart before he was born. "For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion." Romans 9:15. God does not have to save anyone. It is entirely up to God whether or not He decides to show mercy, and it doesn't depend on man's willing or man's attempting. (Romans 9:16) In fact all sinners deserve the righteous hate of Almighty God; eternity in hell.

"though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad--in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls--" Romans 9:11

Before Jacob and Esau were even born, God had elected one to salvation and hardened the other to reprobation. Paul even goes so far as to make clear that it has nothing, absolutely nothing to do with what man will do."were not yet born", "had not done anything good or bad" so that "God's purpose of election might continue, NOT because of works BUT because of Him who calls--". How does the argument of God basing election on what man would do fit anywhere in this text? It doesn't, it is the exact opposite of what Paul is telling us. "So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy." Romans 9:16

"For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers." Romans 8:29

"He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in the last times for the sake of you" 1 Peter 1:20

I'm going to get the ole' "He knew who would believe!!!" argument out of the way by demonstrating what the word "foreknew" means. In 1 Peter 1:20 we see that Christ was foreknown, so does this mean that God just knew what He would do? No, on the contrary it refers to something God has done. (Parallel with Acts 2:23) The word "know" Biblically speaking in relation to God's people, is that of coming close to or coming into relationship with. God has been actively working in His elect all of their life and will succeed in drawing them to Him. How can God do this? Well, it has absolutely nothing to do with free will, rather a bound will.

"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, even as He chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of His will, to the praise of his glorious grace, with which He has blessed us in the Beloved." Ephesians 1:3-6

Predestination is synonymous with love, "In love He predestined us for adoption". This love that Christ has for the elect is unique. It is the love He has for His bride; the church. If this love were on anyone else, this would make Christ an adulterer, as He only seeks to enter into relationship with His bride, not every single individual to ever live. This adoption was according to His will so there is no room for man to make an decision here. God has not left it up to us to decide on our own, rather He will accomplish that which He pleases.